This was a cheeky question from one of our readers. But it is nonetheless valid. God cannot break his own Justice, for the scripture says:
4 The Rock, perfect is his
activity, For all his ways are justice.
A God of faithfulness, with whom there is no injustice; Righteous and upright is he (Deuteronomy 32).
So that answers that. Plainly God cannot sanction or participate in adultery. So how could Mary become pregnant by some entity other than Joseph without adultery being committed? Now, it is no good saying, oh God is not bound by the Law of Moses. God is not a Hypocrite like human religious leaders, or human administrators. He will not sentence us to death if we commit adultery and then merrily go and commit it himself through his wife the holy spirit. So plainly he managed to impregnate Mary without committing adultery. But how could he do this?
Well adultery is the defiling of a married (or engaged) woman with semen other than that of her intended or of her husband. Now all of us human males produce our own unique semen. But God created all of our semen, and is perfectly capable of replicating the semen or the DNA or the sperm of Joseph. So we can deduce that God impregnated Mary with Joseph's genetic material in some way (she was not allowed any other type of genetic material!) So Jesus, at conception, was truly a son of Mary and of Joseph and so was truly a son of David as the bible declares.
8 Remember that Jesus Christ was raised up from the dead and was of David's seed, according to the good news I preach (2Timothy2).
3 concerning his Son, who sprang from the seed of David according to the flesh (Romans1).
Since he was a son of David at conception, he was also a son of post fall Adam at that time. He was also adamic, he was born in sin. For David, speaking literally about himself but speaking prophetically as Jesus, declared...
5 Look! With error I was brought forth with birth pains, And in sin my mother conceived me (Psalm 51),
Many churches understand that in several of David's Psalms, he is inspired to speak as Jesus. For example in Psalm 22 he said:
My God, my God, why have you forsaken me? (Psalm 22).
Whereas Jesus, when he died said:
46 Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is, My God, my God, why have you forsaken me? (Matthew 27).
This scripture does not mean that it is a sin to have sex with your husband. It means that every embryo carries the sin of Adam in its ageing genetic material. So the conception was precisely what would have occurred had Joseph actually slept with Mary. Then at some future point God must have enhanced the genes in the embryo to make them non adamic, but ageing nonetheless, so that Jesus would look like any other human of the time but no longer be under Adam's death penalty. In fact he would look precisely like a son of Mary and Joseph. God would not have to have changed very much genetic material to make Jesus non adamic. Presumably he only needed to introduce some base pairs (DNA elements) that Adam and Eve did not have or remove base pairs that they did have but David did not have. We have some idea how to do that today as well. In fact he would have become a son of edenic Joseph and Mary, he would have got his kingdom body in advance. This would make him a son of edenic David and pre fall Adam. For his mission was to reconstitute everything that Satan corrupted.
Jesus was a true son of David, for God said to King David...
12 When your days come to the full, and you must lie down with your forefathers, then I shall certainly raise up your seed after you, which will come out of your inward parts; and I shall indeed firmly establish his kingdom (2 Samuel 7).
The next question then is: Why did God not just let Joseph sleep with Mary then and genetically enhance the resulting embryo so as to make it non adamic? For example we read in the case of Abraham and Sarah...
11 And Abraham and Sarah were old, being advanced in
years. Sarah had stopped having menstruation.
12 Hence Sarah began to laugh inside herself, saying: After I am worn out, shall I really have pleasure, my lord being old besides? (Genesis 18).
So Sarah procreated with pleasure, i.e. by sleeping with Abraham. This was no immaculate conception. We shall discover in section I22, Isaac was actually non adamic like Jesus. But Abraham and Sarah were incapable themselves of having a son were it not for the intervention of God, so God could claim their son as his. Whereas Mary and Joseph were capable of having a son without any divine intervention, so had they slept with each other and conceived between them without assistance from God, then the son would have belonged to the parents, so God could not have taken the son as his and then genetically enhanced it in accordance with his will. Mary confirmed that she consented to having a child for God by saying...
1 Then Mary said: Look! Jehovah's slave girl! May it take place with me according to your declaration. At that the angel departed from her (Luke 38)
Slave girls have children for their masters.
Nonetheless the fact that God was able to produce a non adamic son to Abraham and Sarah through their own procreation, shows us how he must have arranged it in the case of Jesus. He performed a virtual procreation in the case of Joseph and Mary, it was rather more real in the case of Abraham and Sarah.
But when precisely did God enhance Jesus' embryo's genes to make it non adamic?
21 Now when 8 days came to the full for circumcising him, his name was also called Jesus, the name called by the angel before he was conceived in the womb (Luke 2).
God cannot name the child until the child is his, i.e. until after he has enhanced its genes so as to make the child no longer a son of post fall Adam. Actually God made the child not a son of post fall Adam but a son of pre fall Adam and the edenic version of David (alive at the time of Eden2). So Jesus was a straightforward genetic descendant of non adamic David who was alive on Eden2 at the time of his conception - see U54. He would have had edenic/non adamic equivalents to the genetic characteristics of Joseph and Mary. He was effectively the son of the non adamic versions of Joseph and Mary.
At any rate once the embryo was implanted in the womb, it was named by God,
so its genes must have been enhanced before then. In fact it would make sense if God zapped
the genes of the fertilised egg just before the first cell division, immediately
after conception and before pregnancy (implantation). In this way he would just
be using the fertilised egg as a vehicle to create a non adamic son of David.
Definition: A Non Adamic Human is a human who is not a genetic descendant of post fall Adam. He can be a genetic descendant of pre fall Adam.
God is using an Adamic vehicle to create a non adamic son. He of course has the power to instantly materialise such a being at any age you like, but he chose the more pedantic and less dramatic method of production for Jesus. This was also the way he created Adam in the first place, from pre adamic parents. For if Jesus was the last Adam in some sense, then Adam was the first Jesus in that sense.
18 But the birth of Jesus Christ was in this way. During the time
his mother Mary was promised in marriage to Joseph, she was found to be pregnant by holy
spirit before they were united (Matthew 1).
Pregnancy occurs when the fertilised egg is implanted. It is not a sin for a woman to act as a surrogate mother by receiving a fertilised egg, so long as the egg and the sperm are from a married couple. It is fornication for an egg and a sperm from a non married couple to be united. This has an interesting application to fertilisation clinics today. If a married woman is infertile then she can use another woman's womb, but not another woman's egg, and she must use her husband's sperm.
Jesus was the fleshly son of pre-fall Adam, the son of the man!!!
All bibles incorrectly translate 'the son of the man' as 'the son of man'. The whole point is that the son of the man is a son of pre-fall Adam, the Adam that God created.